Why Ni doms can't be the rarest types amongst women An MBTI critic from Socionics point of view. As we know, the most successful men in the dating game, and the men looked upon as desirable mates are all described by - but not limited to - the following words: Alpha male, Leader of the pack, Knows what he wants, Confident, Dominating, Controlling, Assertive, Strong, Powerful. You can clearly see the pattern there, indeed, that looks like a perfect description of the F, ‘Power Sensing’, or ‘Se’. People with F in their base function can easily be described as stated earlier. Which brings us to our point; If the majority of women want men that give the impression of being F base function, then that would mean that they are F suggestive, that their dual seeking function is F, making their Base Function T, ‘Intuition of Time’ or ‘Ni’. How can T Base Function be the rarest types if F Suggestive Function is the most common? I’ll leave this question up for debate before I answer it...
Whenever i think of "Vertical" or "Horizontal" i have to go through and extra step before knowing which is which. What i mean by that is the word "Horizontal" isn't directly link to a state or a representation of it, same with "Vertical". And what i mean by what i meant, is for example if i take "Right" and "Left", those word are linked directly to a direction. When i think "Right" i automatically know which side is it, the same goes for "Left." But for "Vertical/Horizontal", and "East/West" for that matter, it is NOT the case. I have to add another step in the process to know which is which. But why? Why is "Right/Left" directly understandable to me (one link or one layer of thinking), while "Horizontal/Vertical" need at least two links? Is it because i'm bad at "localization thinking" if that expression means anything? probably not si...
Is it actually possible to do something against your will? First of all, let's assume that we have free will. And by that i mean that we have total control over our decisions and actions, whether or not these decisions/actions that we take are scripted or pre-programmed by some external entity is irrelevant. The question is as follows: if you take a decision, is it possible for someone to force you to act in an opposite way - not change your mind - by actually make you go against what you decide to go for? In my opinion it is impossible for such thing to be doable. With the exception of when you can be forced to do something without you actually doing it*. This probably doesn't make sense so let me try to explain it by an example: You're transporting an amount of money that isn't yours and that you shouldn't give to anybody except its recipient, but someone points a gun at you and asks you for it, the offender is determined to get the money at any c...
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